[Husker] question about pitt game: FUMBLE Q.
Smith, William
wsmith at towson.edu
Wed Sep 28 14:20:50 CDT 2005
True enough..
I wondered if "hitting the ground" made any difference or, asked another way, if "fumbles that do not hit the ground" have fewer limitations. e.g. if a QB had the ball stripped, and a RB recovered the ball before it hit the ground, could the RB pass it? I doubt the RB could pass if the ball hit the ground (assuming the fumbling QB and the recovering RB were not over the line of scrimmage), but I could be wrong on that.
Btw, this is just an amateur's interpretation, it would seem to me since there can only be one forward pass per play, that if a batted ball happened to wind up back w/ the QB that the QB could not pass it a second time.
-----Original Message-----
From: husker-bounces at tssi.com [mailto:husker-bounces at tssi.com] On Behalf Of Pat Gaule
Sent: Wednesday, September 28, 2005 2:48 PM
To: husker at tssi.com
Subject: Re: [Husker] question about pitt game: FUMBLE Q.
Smith, William wrote:
>Regarding an earlier post on this thread....
>
>Must a fumble, by definition, hit the ground? Are all "loose balls" (however they occur)even those that never hit the ground also fumbles, and all rules are applied accordingly?
>
>
It doesn't have to hit the ground. Remember the Wake Forest game where Daniel Bullocks ripped the ball away from WF's tailback and returned it for a touchdown?
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